I've been studying this on and off for a while (just for fun in my spare time), but haven't really come up with anything definitive. The city of Los Angeles is around 400 square miles. So what about all the other "cities" within the city of Los Angeles?
For example, Woodland Hills is a "district" of Los Angeles, as well as the northern border of Los Angeles. But it's not technically an incorporated city, yet it has it's own Post Office and your mail goes to "Woodland Hills, CA" and not to "Los Angeles, CA". Also, the LAPD and LAFD serve Woodland Hills, CA...not like the Woodland Hills PD or FD.
Then there's the "neighborhoods" of Los Angeles, such as Koreatown. Being a neighborhood, your mail goes to "Los Angeles, CA" and not to "Koreatown, CA".
, if an area is a district, then it can essentially be considered a mayorless city with the PD and FD served by the city of Los Angeles, correct? But if an area is a neighborhood, then it's technically LA, right? I think I just made myself more confused after writing this out.